Balkinization  

Saturday, May 06, 2006

May the State Promote Faith in Order to Advance Secular Objectives?

Marty Lederman

The other day I posted here about the unconstitutionality of the Bureau of Prisons' religious-rehabilitation funding program.

The Freedom from Religion Foundation has now filed a suit challenging the constitutionality of the program.

Also, Rob Vischer (at Mirror of Justice) and Rick Garnett (at Prawfsblawg) have each posted thoughtful questions about my assertion that the state's interest in promoting religious transformation is an illegitimate (and troubling) governmental objective. Rick writes, for example, the following:

I certainly share Marty's (and Madison's) concern about religious faith being reduced to a convenient means for achieving the government's "secular" ends. That said, I'm not sure why it should be unconstitutional -- or, in any event, why it would be "profoundly disturbing" -- for the government, as a general matter, to take, and act on (in non-coercive ways, of course, and consistent with the freedom of conscience), the view that "religious transformation [and] faith" are good (when freely embraced). There are dangers here, absolutely. Still . . . (To be clear: I'm not necessarily endorsing this particular program.)

Also, Marty writes, "[t]he government cannot specifically aim at religious transformation as a means of accomplishing those secular ends." Does this mean, I wonder, that government may (or should) not act with an eye specifically toward protecting, and even creating, the conditions required (in the government's view) for the flourishing of religious faith and freedom?


To which I have posted a response in the Prawfsblawg comments section that includes the following. (I'd very much appreciate reactions on, especially, the fourth and final point):

1. You ask whether my critique means "that government may (or should) not act with an eye specifically toward protecting, and even creating, the conditions required (in the government's view) for the flourishing of religious faith and freedom?"

No, it doesn't entirely mean that. One of the principal objectives of the religion clauses themselves is to encourage or require the government to act so as to eliminate government-created obstacles to the flourishing of religious faith and freedom. So, for example, I favor -- and have worked to enact and defend -- certain religious "accommodation" statutes, such as RFRA and RLUIPA.

However, although the state may advance the view that religious freedom (including the freedom to reject religion) is a civic good in and of itself, it may not advance the view that religious faith is a positive good in and of itself -- or that it's the means to valuable secular ends.

2. The government is simply not capable of determining whether "religious transformation [and] faith" are a "good" thing (when freely embraced) -- that's a question that is beyond the ken of secular authorities, who do not have the (basically theological) tools to make such determinations. Nor should the state try to do so -- that's not the proper role of government. (Or so argues the Madisonian, and modern, view of the Religion Clauses -- and I agree, although I'm very interested in hearing dissenting views.) And so it surely follows that government may not discriminate in favor of religion in the dispersal of funds on the basis of such judgments concerning the value of faith.

3. I think it's also "troubling," and unconstitutional, for the state to conclude that religious transformation or faith is correlated with secular objectives that the state is entitled to promote, such as civic behavior, rehabilitation, cessation of alcohol dependence, etc. For one thing -- and this isn't a constitutional point -- as far as I can tell, it's simply not true: If anything, human history (including, of course, obvious dramatic recent examples) pellucidly demonstrates that religious faith is no guarantee at all of righteousness, lack of cruelty, or law-abiding conduct.

More to the (constitutional) point, there is something profoundly troubling about the state itself adopting any view about the "typical" comparative social behaviors, and human qualities, of believers and nonbelievers.

4. The hard question, I suppose, is this: Assume the state is entirely agnostic as to the value or "truth" of religious transformation and faith, but actually discovers a strong empirical correlation between faith and some other quality that is a proper object of the state's concern. For example, let's say studies show a cause-and-effect correlation between faith and graduation rates, or between religious transformation and resisting drug addiction. (I'm not aware of any such empirical evidence, but I'm willing to assume arguendo . . . .) I don't think this would give the state the power to itself promote religious faith -- after all, in that case the state would be promoting something that it does not believe, which truly is a perversion of religion. But if there is such a correlation, can a government give resources to private groups that do have religious faith, to enable them to transform those individuals who don't?

Can the state, for instance, say: "Look, we really don't know whether faith is true, or valuable, or something to which all citizens should aspire. Those are eternal mysteries that are appropriately left to individuals. And we believe in religious liberty -- so to each their own on questions of faith. But what we do know, from rigorous scientific studies (indulge me the hypo), is that, for whatever reason -- indeed, for reasons that we are incapable of understanding or assessing -- many prisoners who would otherwise become recidivists do not do so if they come to believe in God, and for that reason (and that secular reason alone), we're giving discretionary grants to private religious organizations that can help such prisoners make such transformations. Indeed, the strongest correlation of all is with conversion to Christianity, and so we're going to give our funds primarily to Christian organizations. There's no such evidence with respect to Islam, or Wicca, and so we will not provide money to groups who have applied to encourage faith in those traditions."

Can the state do this? Madison thought not -- and I agree. But, unlike the other questions raised by the BOP program, that truly would be an interesting and difficult question (that is, assuming once again that there were any such evidence).


In response to my assertion that the state cannot and must not act on the conclusion that "religious transformation [and] faith" are a "good" thing (when freely embraced), Rick has replied:
With all respect, I disagree. Putting constitutional doctrine aside, the public authority, charged with promoting and protecting the common good, may decide that "religion" is a basic human good, and that its flourishing -- consistent with the freedom of conscience -- is constitutive of the common good. (See, e.g., Finnis).

Obviously, Rick's view on this fundamental question is very different from mine, and inconsistent with established constitutional doctrine (not that Rick claims otherwise). It strikes me as quite an important issue of contention -- and that, if the doctrine were to begin to reflect Rick's view, it would look very different from what we now see.

What do others think? Please feel free to weigh in here, or on Prawfsblawg.

UPDATE: With respect to the debate between Rick and me, Doug Laycock has written this on a listserv:
I think Marty is clearly right on this fundamental question. The state cannot decide that religion or religious transformation is a good thing, any more than it could decide that religion is a divisive and disruptive force that should be minimized or discouraged.

But a more sensibly designed program of religious rehab in prisons need not assume that religious transformation is a good thing, or even that religious programs would have lower recidivism rates than secular programs. It need only assume that religion works for some people, and that if different people respond to different kinds of programs, religious programs should be among the options.

Among the problems with the proposed federal program, at least as the press described it to me, is that only one religion will be represented, and that there does not appear to be an equivalent secular program.

To which I have offered the following response:
But Doug, assume that the state prison decides that "religion works for some people," and therefore creates a program such as the one you describe: It establishes within the prison a funded series of voluntary rehab programs, some (but not all) of which are devoted to "religious transformation," as a means of lowering recidivism rates. Wouldn't there continue to be at least three constitutional problems with this?:

1. It would be direct funding of religious activity, prohibited by Mitchell, Kendrick, and numerous other cases.

2. It would consist of state actors actually engaged in the practice of promoting religious transformation. (These are, after all, state programs run within the prisons. Cf. West v. Atkins.) Just as public schools could not include a "religious transformation" class as part of a series of "elective" civics classes, in the service of creating upstanding citizens (and based on the same sorts of empirical claims that you invoke), so too for the public prisons . . .

3. Inevitably, each of the religious transformation programs will be sect-specific, i.e., each will involve the state urging prisoners to adopt a specific system of religious beliefs and commitments. This creates a problem within each of the programs, doesn't it? -- not to mention the inevitable problem that no prison will be able to offer "transformation" programs for all of the religions represented in the prison population.

These seem to me as though they are very big constitutional obstacles, even if the program were amended along the lines you propose.


[UPDATE: Steve Shiffrin offers his views here.]

Comments:

This comment has been removed by a blog administrator.
 

As to #4, I would think that even if in some limited view selected faiths promoted public good (which it does, since satanism tends not to), the state putting a thumb on the scales hurts overall.

As to the benefits of promotion of religious practice, I don't quite understand how the gov't can do this neutrally. It is not like "lackluster" religious faith is somehow no faith at all. It is usually clearly just a different form.

Bottom line, there seems to be some religious favoritism being promoted by the dissenting views as expressed here. ML's stance seems the best approach. As to RFRA though, I'm not sure that's just concerned with taking aways barriers placed by the gov't.

It also concerns otherwise neutral laws and seems on some level at least actively promoting free exercise overall. Given the Free Exercise Clause, I don't think this is a bad thing. Gov't programs however are different animals.
 

This isn't exactly related to this post, but I would really like to blog about David Luban's post below and the link to it is broken. I suspect the colon in the title is what's confusing Blogger. Could someone fix that?

Dave
 

Marty,

Suppose a state had a basis for believing a particular drug --- let's call it Relagra --- could possibly reduce recidivism and bring reconciliation to victim, community and inmate through a medicinal transformation in the inmate's thinking patterns and subsequent behavior. Would there be any constitutional objection if a government decided to purchase this drug and offer it to any inmate who wished to take it?

If offering this hypothetical Relagra drug to inmates is constitutionally permissible, I am troubled to learn that the First Amendment creates distinctive constitutional problems when the prison program is voluntary religion classes rather than a form of medication.

Put another way, I resist framing faith-in-prison programs as promoting religion. I rather view these programs as an effort to make the sad and harmful realities of modern crime and modern punishment a little less awful for everyone involved. If a state believes religion can serve this goal, does the First Amendment really create insurmountable roadblocks to such efforts?
 

If offering this hypothetical Relagra drug to inmates is constitutionally permissible, I am troubled to learn that the First Amendment creates distinctive constitutional problems when the prison program is voluntary religion classes rather than a form of medication.

This hypothetical drug, however, lacks both the history and the side effects of government intrusion into religion. The First Amendment exists because the Founders were all too familiar with both.

I've never quite understood the reference to "religion" as a generic term. I know what particular religions offer, but I doubt anyone can really say what "religion" means. I don't see government as sponsoring "religion", but as sponsoring specific doctrines or institutions.

I see the issue here as similar to some of those which arise under the equal protection clause. For example, it's easy to show that blacks commit crimes at higher rates than whites. I doubt anyone would agree to impose harsher sentences on blacks even if that could be proved to reduce the overall crime rate. This is true for several reasons, but at least partly because the history of discrimination warns us not to start down that road.

I view the prison program much the same way. It took hundreds of years and horrific consequences in order to separate government and religion. It's always possible someone will propose a very logical and plausible exception to this separation, but that's why it's important to remember that this policy was founded not in reason, but experience.
 

Mark, but what about free exercise issues? Your "separation" vision would not allow federal prison officials to keep inmates from organizing their own prayer groups inside federal prisons. Indeed, I surmise that prison official have some obligation (even before RFRA and certainly after) to allow inmates to execise their religion.

To reiterate my point in these terms, why shouldn't the BOP program here be seen as a form of accomodation for those inmate who might reasonably come to believe that religion is their best way to start on a better life?

Your race analogy makes me think of so-called benign forms of racial distinction (such as in some forms of affirmative action) that are often defended in terms of the positive benefits to society of sometimes taking race into account. Shouldn't the religion clauses have some notion of begign accomodation in this setting?
 

To reiterate my point in these terms, why shouldn't the BOP program here be seen as a form of accomodation for those inmate who might reasonably come to believe that religion is their best way to start on a better life?

I'd have no problem with private programs. I think the government should allow those programs; that's what I see as an "accomodation" (and I understand my view may be narrower than case law here). But that's a far cry from actual government sponsorship of those programs.

Your race analogy makes me think of so-called benign forms of racial distinction (such as in some forms of affirmative action) that are often defended in terms of the positive benefits to society of sometimes taking race into account.

It seems to me that in First Amendment cases, these benefits can be handled under the free exercise clause and the "accomodation" I accepted above. If history warns us against public intrusion into religion, and if private action can provide the benefit, I think we're safer with a policy of governmental neutrality.
 

I think a major part of the problem is the implicit notion that there is something called "religion" that exists over and above individual beliefs and the creeds of sects. I do not think there is any research that shows that one particular sectarian creed has a positive social effect over and above that of all others and, if that is the case, the assumption that any given sectarian creed should be promoted by the state is unwarranted at best. That, in particular, would be research in which the placebo effect would have to be intensely studied.

On the other hand, in "http://we.karleklund.net" I describe a viewpoint on God that is consistent with science. Unfortunately there is no reason to believe that that kind of God has theraputic effects on sociopaths.
 

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