Balkinization  

Monday, July 23, 2007

Original Public Meaning and "Contemporary Expected Application"

JB

I had wanted to respond to Larry Solum's discussion of my most recent post on originalism.

Larry argues:

[E]vidence about original expected applications can be relevant to the original meaning of the constitutional text. But to make it relevant you need to show how and why. But note that this same gap is present in Balkin's own argument. Balkin writes: "We do not live in a world with the same assumptions about the power of school officials over their students, just as we do not think that the original understanding of libel, profanity, sexuality explicit speech or commercial speech should apply either. Our modern doctrines are consistent with original meaning of "the freedom of speech"" But he doesn't tell us how and why the contemporary expectations are relevant to the "original public meaning" of freedom of speech.

There is an important theoretical point here--one that likely has been made before, although I'm not aware of a particular source. Balkin's distinction between original public meaning and original expected applications is important and theoretically crucial. But there is a similar gap between original public meaning and contemporary expected applications. But whereas original expected applications provide relevant, probative, but not conclusive evidence about the original public meaning of the constitutional text, contemporary expected applications rarely provide such evidence.
I was initially puzzled by Larry's argument. I do not think-- and I have never claimed-- that something called "contemporary expected application" is evidence of original public meaning. At most I have argued that people living in the present must try to apply original public meaning to their present circumstances. So contemporary understandings and expectations might inform how we apply original public meaning and underlying principles today, but ordinarily we would not look to them as evidence of what the words in the Constitution originally meant, at least if we have older, contemporary evidence of the public meaning of words.

For this reason, I wouldn't agree with Larry that there's a "gap between original public meaning and contemporary expected applications" that is "similar" to the gap between "original expected applications" and original public meaning." "Contemporary expected applications" plays no role in my views about how to ascertain original public meaning, while at least original expected applications can be useful in some respects-- as Larry points out and as I shall describe in more detail a moment. For that reason, I don't think I have any obligation to "tell . . . how and why the contemporary expectations are relevant to the `original public meaning' of freedom of speech" because I don't think they are relevant to discerning "original public meaning." At most they are relevant evidence about how to apply the Constitution's meaning in the present.

For those of you who aren't up on the beginnings of this discussion, here's my theory in a nutshell: I argue that constitutional interpretation requires fidelity to original public meaning but not to original expected application. Original public meaning is what the words used meant to competent speakers of the language in the relevant political community at the time of adoption. Original expected application is how people at the time expected those words would be applied to concrete situations in their world. Original public meaning is a proper object of constitutional fidelity, while original expected application is not.

This theory is based on the distinction between meaning and application. This distinction is not perfectly airtight, but neither is it illusory. For example, the ban on "cruel and unusual punishments" requires us to decide today how we should apply the original public meanings of the words "cruel and unusual." It does not require us to follow how people in 1791 would have applied the concepts of "cruel and unusual." Some punishments that they believed were not "cruel and unusual" could nevertheless be unconstitutional today when we apply the original public meaning of the text in our current world. The present day command that we must apply in present circumstances is the text's original public meaning. But the law does not command us to follow how the adopting generation might have expected the text would be applied.

Given this theory of interpretation, original expected application can be useful to constitutional interpretation in four distinct ways, which should not be confused with each other. Two of these ways concern how we use original expected applications as evidence of the original public meaning of the text, one of them concerns how we ascertain the principles underlying the text, and one of them concerns how we should apply text and principles to concrete situations in our own world.

First, original expected application is relevant to contemporary interpretation because it is evidence of the original public meaning of the individual words in the text. We might want to know, for example, whether the words "equal" and "protection" had a different meaning in 1866 than they do today. In this case, original expected application serves much the same function as a dictionary from 1866.

Second, original expected application can shed light on original public meaning because original public meaning includes generally recognized terms of art. Original expected application is evidence of those terms of art. It helps us determine whether the words of the text in combination-- for example "equal protection of the laws"-- uses a generally recognized term of art at variance with ordinary usage. "Due Process of Law" is a term of art that has a long history, and its meaning as a term of art changes over time. Its meaning as a term of art in 1866 is different than its meaning in 1791, for example. My study of the history of the Fourteenth Amendment, however, suggests that "equal protection of the laws" was not a generally recognized term of art in 1866.

Third, original expected application is relevant in order to determine what are the principles underlying a text with relatively abstract and general terms. We look to the justifications and arguments people made for the words they chose in order to see what principles they were trying to articulate through their choice of words. However, the principles we derive from history are not the same as original expected applications. (For a more detailed explanation of this point, see my discussion here). The principles underlying the text should be at roughly the same level of abstraction as the words used.

For example, my research into the history of the Fourteenth Amendment shows that the text "equal protection of the laws" meant to establish, among other things, constitutional principles against caste and class legislation. The generation that adopted the Fourteenth Amendment nevertheless expected that states could ban whites and blacks from marrying each other. Today, however, I would argue that laws banning racial intermarriage would violate the prohibition on caste and class legislation.

Fourth, the original expected application is relevant in order to determine the best way to apply the text and principles to concrete situations. (This goes back to my basic distinction between meaning and application. Original expected application can be evidence of public meaning and it can also be an argument for correct application. But these are different ways of using it.) However, original expected application may not be very persuasive evidence of correct application, because the proper application of text and principle to concrete situations is heavily dependent on social contexts and social understandings. As time passes, the original expected application may be less and less useful for deciding the best way to apply the text and underlying principles to contemporary problems. The case of interracial marriage mentioned above is one example. Here is a second: The original expected application of "equal protection of the laws" was thought consistent with the coverture rules, under which women lost all of their rights upon marriage, under the fiction that they surrendered them to their husbands by agreeing to marry. In 1866 people thought that this practice was perfectly consistent with the words "equal protection of the laws," and with the underlying principles of equal citizenship and the ban on class and caste legislation. I do not think that stripping women of all rights upon marriage today would afford them equal protection of the laws, whatever people thought back then.

This brings me back to Larry's post. Larry now postulates another category that he calls "contemporary expected application." I do not use this concept in my work, so I will have to do the best I can in responding to his points. But three things are worth noting at the outset about this new category.

First, it has very little probative value for discovering original public meaning. It matters, if at all, with respect to application of original public meaning.

Second, "contemporary expected application" it is not the same thing as contemporary understandings and values. Rather, it involves contemporary beliefs-- to the extent people have them-- about how to apply the original public meaning of the Constitution. (Just as original expected application involves beliefs about how to apply the original public meaning of the Constitution at the time of adoption.)

Third, the concept of "contemporary expected application" like the concept of "original expected application" is a third party concept, not a first party concept. It is what other people contemporary with the interpreter think about how to apply the Constitution's text and principles, not what the interpreter thinks.

To me this last point is central. The Constitution's text is a present-day command that requires interpreters in the present to apply it in the present, using what ever resources (including past doctrines and precedents) are at their disposal. To do this interpreters inevitably draw on contemporary understandings and values that are part of their ways of thinking. But that is not because the interpreter looks to "contemporary expected application" as evidence of what he or she should believe but simply because the interpreter lives in the present. It is worth noting that both originalists and non-originalists live in the present and have contemporary understandings and values that they bring to the task of interpretation.

So the concept of "contemporary expected application" is not the same thing as the interpreter's own understandings and values, which are inevitably contemporary because the interpreter lives in the present. And it is not evidence of what other people's beliefs and values are generally. Rather, it is evidence of what other people expect about how to apply the original public meaning of the constitutional text. There may well be some convergence on those questions, but on other issues-- for example on the most heated constitutional issues of the day-- there may be significant divergence and a distribution of different positions.

So understood, "contemporary expected application" probably plays a limited role in constitutional interpretation to the extent that it differs from the interpreter's own best sense of how to apply the Constitution. Of course, sometimes a interpreter may use doctrines that specifically look to contemporary values and understandings to flesh out the meaning of phrases like "cruel and unusual" or "due process of law." But in that case the interpreter looks to contemporary values and understandings generally, as opposed to how people think the original public meaning of the Constitution should be applied.

However, there is another way that "contemporary expected application" might be helpful to the interpreter. And it could be very helpful indeed. If by "contemporary expected application" all you mean is the existing set of doctrines and doctrinal categories designed to implement constitutional meaning, then "contemporary expected application" would be good evidence of how to apply the Constitution's original public meaning if existing doctrines and precedents were generally reasonable implementations of constitutional text and principle.

In fact, I think this is very often what people do. They start with the existing doctrinal structure and take it for granted that existing doctrine (for the most part) is a reasonable implementation even if it is not always the best one, and then reason from doctrines and doctrinal categories to conclusions. Hence it would make sense to say, as I do say, that "Our modern doctrines are consistent with original meaning of `the freedom of speech.'" That is, I believe that our current doctrines are for the most part reasonable applications and implementations of original public meaning.

But if we believe doctrine and doctrinal categories-- as "contemporary expected application" of the Constitution-- are presumptively reasonable, we must always be prepared to criticize doctrine if it strays too far from what we believe to the best interpretation of the Constitution. That is to say, doctrine might be presumptively reasonable, but not conclusively so. And this brings me back to my original post on Justice Thomas and his use of originalist arguments. In Morse v. Frederick Justice Thomas was right to want to go back to first principles. He was wrong in thinking that how people expected things should work in the early 1800s is the best way to apply the Constitution today.

Comments:

Thanks for the brief summary, Professor Balkin. I don't really disagree with the basic argument you put forth, but your implementation and examples seem to give greater weight to the cultural shift of meaning than I can readily infer from your premises.

You suggest looking to the original expected applications to inform upon the original meaning of the words, phrases, and broader text, but then what do we do with that original meaning? You seem to reinterpret it in your examples with a more contemporary sense of greater abstraction.

Is your argument that "cruel" and "unusual" were originally meant to be entirely relative to the changing culture's definitions?

More generally, are you broadly inserting cultural relativity into the principles you abstract from the text, or are you asserting that such cultural relativity is what was originally intended by the framers? In either case, given such relativity, at what point must the Constitution be revised versus culturally reinterpreted?

At the very least it seems that you must conclude that despite having written the words, the framers didn't really understand the principles they were codifying, but that we do. Is this correct?
 

At the very least it seems that you must conclude that despite having written the words, the framers didn't really understand the principles they were codifying, but that we do. Is this correct?

-i think this is possible. the framers were not a monolithic group with a singular understanding of the constitution. while negotiating a text laying out a basic structure for the government and listing broad liberal principles agreeable to all in theory, the framers probably originally understood that the meaning as application of their words would be decided politically. some might even have contemplated that sometimes the application in their time might directly contradict what they saw to be the literal meaning of the words at that time. if that was their original understanding, it may not have been their understanding that only their generation would modify the practical content of the document's words.

since future generations have more experience to look to as far as relation of the structures of government, doctrine and application and analysis of the broad liberties guaranteed by the constitution, later political decisions could be claimed to carry more weight.
 

J.B. Please define "relevant political community."

And explain how, in a democracy, any group or individual can be irrelevant?
 

the framers probably originally understood that the meaning as application of their words would be decided politically. some might even have contemplated that sometimes the application in their time might directly contradict what they saw to be the literal meaning of the words at that time.

This is clearly true in the most notable case, that of Madison. Here's his explanation of why he changed his position regarding the Bank:

“It was in conformity with the view here taken of the respect due to deliberate and reiterated precedent, that the Bank of the United States, though on the original question held [by Madison] to be unconstitutional, received [Madison’s presidential] signature in the year 1817. The act originally establishing a bank had undergone ample discussions in its passage through the several branches of the government. It had been carried into execution through a period of twenty years, with annual legislative recognition ... and with the entire acquiescence of all the local authorities, as well as of the nation at large; to all of which may be added a decreasing prospect of any change in the public opinion adverse to the constitutionality of such an institution. A veto [by Madison], under these circumstances, [especially after having admitted both] the expediency and ... necessity of the measure, would have been a defiance of all the obligations derived from a course of precedents amounting to the requisite evidence of the national judgment and intentions.”
 

Thanks for your excellent comment, Alec.

I agree that the framers were not a monolithic group with a singular understanding, and that the discrepancies between their respective understandings would be reconciled in the political (meaning legislative?) process. I also agree that semantic outliers may at times find some applications contrary to their original understanding.

Nevertheless, there is also a great deal of coherence to which we may look, and Prof. Balkin's examples did not appear to address such historic outliers of original meaning but instead cases where they would agree in their time and we would disagree in our time, with both judgements being purportedly based upon the same principles that they had codified, applied to the same event in the same context with the sole exception being cultural interpretation.

Alec wrote: "if that was their original understanding, it may not have been their understanding that only their generation would modify the practical content of the document's words."

That statement and your last paragraph seem very significant and I'd be interested to see Prof. Balkin affirm that since he does seem to imply it.

I'm left questioning whether the framers's own reconciliation of the principles they codified gives license to future generations to reinterpret the text rather than change it. It seems to be an originalist argument for living constitutionalism.

In that case, what is the role of the judiciary in this process of reinterpretation? At what point should the legislature revise the Constitution, given the validity of mere reinterpretation?
 

Thanks for the Madison example, Mark.

Is Madison arguing that the political process should operate through such cultural reinterpretation, or instead that he is morally justified in this particular case to corrupt the proper legislative process due to the need for expediency and the necessity of the measure, coupled with precedence and the national judgement and intentions?

I see the greater debate as a question of process: Should the culture express itself implicitly through reinterpretation or explicitly through modification?

How do we address cases which violate the process but also bear the colossal weight of a cultural shift?

Moreover, how should we effectively measure such cultural shifts if mere reinterpretation is permitted?
 

Kevin,

by political I wasnt referring to the political branches exclusively. i was referring more to the social interactions that constitute public opinion and mores. i guess im not really sure what i was talking about, it was 5 am. something like madison's "national judgment and intentions" - thanks mark



my opinion on the legitimacy of interpretation over revision

concepts like "due process of law", "just compensation", "unreasonable search or seizure" invite interpretation and are tied to the expectations of people and the material capacity of government to provide process or to invade privacy. it seems unreasonable to limit the concept of unreasonable search to what the framers could have thought of at the time, unless we also limit policing capacity to what it was at the time of the founding.


-You suggest looking to the original expected applications to inform upon the original meaning of the words, phrases, and broader text, but then what do we do with that original meaning? You seem to reinterpret it in your examples with a more contemporary sense of greater abstraction.

concepts like establishment of religion and freedom of the speech and press are a little more concrete. the framers probably had specific ideas about what they meant in their context, but stated them broadly instead of specifically prohibiting the government contact that they could list. if the liberal ideals they meant to enshrine in the constitution have expanded
(become more abstract) since the founding, could that have been their intent or just part of the nature of the concepts with which they were dealing.
 

Is Madison arguing that the political process should operate through such cultural reinterpretation, or instead that he is morally justified in this particular case to corrupt the proper legislative process due to the need for expediency and the necessity of the measure, coupled with precedence and the national judgement and intentions?

I see the greater debate as a question of process: Should the culture express itself implicitly through reinterpretation or explicitly through modification?


It's impossible to answer your question with certainty, but I feel fairly confident that Madison (and Jefferson) would have expected the political process to resolve many issues. In addition to the Bank example, here's Madison's letter to Jefferson describing the options available to handle the problem of removing from office Presidential appointments:

“[Two pending bills] gave birth to a very interesting constitutional question: by what authority removals from office were to be made. The Constitution being silent on the point, it was left to construction. Four opinions were advanced: 1. That no removal could be made but by way of impeachment. … 2. That it [was left to] the Legislature, to be disposed of as might be proper. … 3. That it was incident to the power of appointment, and therefore belonged to the President and Senate. … 4. That the Executive power being generally vested in the President, and the Executive function of removal not expressly taken away, it remained with the President. To this [i.e., to number 4] was objected [that the Senate participated in the appointment and therefore should in the removal], and the danger of creating too much weight in the Executive scale. After very long debates the 4th opinion prevailed, as most consonant to the text of the Constitution, to the policy of mixing the Legislative and Executive Departments as little as possible, and to the requisite responsibility and harmony in the Executive Department.”

Note Madison's quick assumption that "The Constitution being silent on the point, it was left to construction." No amendment, no judicial decision (ultimately, of course, US v. Myers ruled on the issue).

This doesn't prove that Madison had the same expectation for EVERY issue, particularly when an actual clause might be dispositive. But it, combined with his view on the Bank, suggests a firm commitment by him to the political process. In my own view, that commitment leads to an evolutionary process.
 

alec: concepts like establishment of religion and freedom of the speech and press are a little more concrete. the framers probably had specific ideas about what they meant in their context.

I would capitalize your name, but there's that small chance that you're doing a bell hooks thing and it would be disrespectful despite my intent. Hope the thought counts for somethin'.

My expectation is that the framers ended up with a set of words they each could live (and let live) with while each hoping their private versions of the meanings of those words and the "logically required" applications thereof would eventually work out in their favor. That's certainly how similar group decisions work today, and I see nothing to indicate human nature was so very different then. What this practical reality means in the context of a) Professor Balkin's analyses, b) Justice Thomas's scandalous writings, c) the effective intersection, if any of a) and b), well, that part is beyond me.

Peace.
 

Alec wrote: "it seems unreasonable to limit the concept of unreasonable search to what the framers could have thought of at the time, unless we also limit policing capacity to what it was at the time of the founding."

I agree: we must look to the intended principles and their conditionals and not just limit ourselves to historical applications. But Prof. Balkin notes that his examples actually contradict historical applications, leading me to suspect that he sees cultural relativity itself as an implicitly pervasive and intended conditional of principles in the text.

Alec wrote: "if the liberal ideals they meant to enshrine in the constitution have expanded (become more abstract) since the founding, could that have been their intent or just part of the nature of the concepts with which they were dealing."

Maybe that was their intent and I think it is helpful that Mark is addressing that possibility in more detail. I appreciate your argument, I'm just unclear whether Prof. Balkin is making that same argument and whether I understand him correctly.
 

Mark wrote: "It's impossible to answer your question with certainty, but I feel fairly confident that Madison (and Jefferson) would have expected the political process to resolve many issues."

I do not doubt that the political process is evolutionary and that they would have expected it to resolve many issues, what I am wondering is how that political process is supposed to operate in the context of re-interpretation. Or is it the case that whatever happens in the political process is the way it should operate?

It seems relevant to your last example that the issue had no precedent or Constitutional guide upon which to rely, and that Madison looked to the legislature to fill in the gaps.

I'm interested to learn of any other examples you are aware of, like the "Bank" (which may be exceptional), wherein the framers advocated reinterpretation in order to reverse precedence. Thanks.
 

It's always seemed to me that to maintain fidelity to the drafters of the provisions of the Constitution (or statutes, for that matter) we must treat the words and clauses as the intended consequences of the democratic process.

With that being said, the language must not be treated as an accident or as a mere shell to be fleshed out by a later generation. To do this will, though I expect some would disagree, invariably lead to judge-made law, for who is that mythical judge who has his finger so firmly on the pulse of society that he can act as their duly unelected representative?

The provisions of the Constitution must be treated as a scream in the canyon, with reverberations throughout the ages that can be traced back to a single, broadly-defined source.
 

I do not doubt that the political process is evolutionary and that they would have expected it to resolve many issues, what I am wondering is how that political process is supposed to operate in the context of re-interpretation. Or is it the case that whatever happens in the political process is the way it should operate?

I'm not sure there's an easy answer to this; at least not one that's perfectly consistent. Jefferson, for example, originally expected that the judges would interpret and enforce the Constitutional limitations:

“In the arguments in favor of a declaration of rights, you omit one which has great weight with me, the legal check which it puts into the hands of the judiciary. This is a body, which if rendered independent, and kept strictly to their own department merits great confidence for their learning and integrity.” Letter to Madison, March 15, 1789.

Later, after Jefferson had become disgusted with the federalist judges, he began to reject the judiciary in favor of the elected branches.

Madison, I think, was all along more reliant on the democratic process to decide Constitutional issues. Remember that the whole purpose of his grand theory in Federalist 10 was to create a "republican solution" to the problems of republican government. His solution was intended to prevent the enactment of laws unless they satisfied the "permanent and aggregate interests" of the nation. In that sense, Madison was, at least at the outset, intending to rely mostly on the democratic branches to decide the scope of their own power. In Federalist 44, his response to the potential for abuse of the necessary and proper clause was

"If it be asked what is to be the consequence, in case the Congress shall misconstrue this part of the Constitution, and exercise powers not warranted by its true meaning, I answer, the same as if they should misconstrue or enlarge any other power vested in them; as if the general power had been reduced to particulars, and any one of these were to be violated; the same, in short, as if the State legislatures should violate the irrespective constitutional authorities. In the first instance, the success of the usurpation will depend on the executive and judiciary departments, which are to expound and give effect to the legislative acts; and in the last resort a remedy must be obtained from the people who can, by the election of more faithful representatives, annul the acts of the usurpers." Emphasis added.

OTOH, Madison was not perfectly consistent on this point. In one sense, his Virginia Resolution, by claiming the right of states to "interpose", seems at least arguably inconsistent (though Madison could and did insist it was not). Later still, he complained to Spencer Roane (Sept. 2, 1819) that Marshall's opinion in McCulloch allowed a "latitude" of interpretation which created “a Legislative discretion … to which no practical limit can be assigned.”

Ultimately, though, Madison was a very strong believer in the principal of majority rule. I believe, though I can't prove, that he would have accepted any long term practice which evidenced "the national judgment and intentions” (see the Bank quote above), provided that the practice didn't contradict the express language of the Constitution.

There is one important caveat to this, though. Madison's whole theory of Federalist 10, and thus his acceptance of majority rule, depended on Congress being actually representative of the people as a whole. He vehemently protested the unrepresentative nature of the Senate. I'm sure that his willingness to accept legislation would have depended on some assurance that Congress actually reflected the majority will.

This post is getting fairly long, but I should add that many of the federalists took the old British position that "liberty" was whatever the majority said it was. If they were consistent with that -- and I'm not sure they were after Jefferson's election -- then that achieves substantially the same result as Madison's view (at least in my interpretation).

The key point for me is whether and how this reliance on majority rule intersects with the problem of majority tyranny. That's such a big issue that I'll leave it for now.

I'm interested to learn of any other examples you are aware of, like the "Bank" (which may be exceptional), wherein the framers advocated reinterpretation in order to reverse precedence.

The reaction of the first Republican Administration to the Sedition Act -- pardoning the victims, refunding their fines -- probably qualifies, though there's no convenient summation as there is for Madison and the Bank. The repeal of the expanded judiciary might also be seen as settling the interpretation of Art. III, Sec. 1. If I think of some other examples I'll post them later.
 

Thanks again, Mark.
 

Kevin: Or is it the case that whatever happens in the political process is the way it should operate?

I know it's a rhetorical question, but it bears emphasizing that the clear answer to the question is a resounding "No!" The Constitution, at all times by all views, is intended to prevent and preclude tyranny. The problem remains that one man's tyranny is another's "necessary and proper", either for "security" or "the economy" or because the people affected are deemed outside the pale of those we deem worthy of protection from tyranny.

The Constitution is supposed to help us be strong enough to resist external forces which would impose tyranny upon us, and to prevent us from acting tyrannically on ourselves and citizens. Some even think it should serve to prevent, say, the genocide of the Mohicans and unjust wars of aggression in service of war profiteers. But like the contemptible slavery "compromise" even where the political process deems certain acts to not be tyranny said political processes don't affect the reality of our acts. Once in a while reducing the discussion to such simple terms might be helpful in order to ground conversations pursuing refined nuance. That's the spirit in which this comment is offered.
 

I've worked in the constitutional law area nearly 20 years and have long since abandoned the academic literature for any purpose other than entertainment or a quick and dirty way into the cases. (The footnotes matter more than the text.) Although I agree with everything Prof. Balkin says, I think this post illustrates my frustration with the literature. I simply cannot understand why such stuff is the least bit controversial, though I know it is, and do not understand how someone can make a career (and win tenure) for saying such obvious stuff or, worse, opposing it.
 

cjcolucci: I simply cannot understand why such stuff is the least bit controversial...

Respectfully, as a student from a non-ABA school who nonetheless hopes to one day boast of 20 years similar experience, could it be simply that you advocate one side of the matter so well and so often that propositions over which reasonable folks can, in good faith, disagree have come to seem self-evident? If not, then may I ask you to narrow your statement to one particular point which you can't see as contentious so I can better understand your concern?

I am not unsympathetic with what you've written. I tend to think it's a mistake to credit the writings of a Thomas or Scalia as bona fide offerings suitable to academic analysis. Despite their robes these men are advocates of a partisan political stance. But that's what academics do, they try to take things at face value and evaluate them for their possible merits, even after considering the source. Chiding a professor on those grounds seems a bit like chiding a counselor for unabashed advocacy (as opposed to chiding a judge for same.)

Truly just trying to grasp your statement.

Peace.
 

There's a fine line between genius and insanity. I have erased this line.
Agen Judi Online Terpercaya
 

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