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Balkinization
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Monday, November 05, 2007
Reponse to David Strauss on Originalism-- First Round
JB
Cross posted at University of Chicago Law School Faculty Blog
Comments:
Oh, joy: A debate on originalism between an opponent of originalism, and an originalist many originalists wouldn't recognize as one of their own. This is SO likely to advance understanding of the notion.
My own view of originalism: It isn't a mode of interpretation, it IS interpretation. It's just how you approach a text, (Be it a constitution or Corvette owners' manual.) if you have an open minded interest in what it actually means, rather than, (As is essentially the heart of non-originalist 'interpretation'.) a fixed determination to find something congenial whether or not it's there. "The best argument for decisions living constitutionalists admire is not that they are settled precedents; it is that they are faithful implementations of the Constitution's textual commitments and underlying principles." That's the rub: What if they're NOT?
"[T]he proper level of generality is the level that we find in the text itself."
Amen! If we'd change "text and principle" to "textually-expressed principle," I'd be happier, though. "The text says 'equal protection of the laws.' That is the proper level of generality." Right, but "protection of the laws" was used over and over--in treatises of the time, in Blackstone, and in Marbury--to refer to the remedial and enforcement functions of government, not to governmental benefits in general. The debates leading to the 1871 Civil Rights Act make very clear that "protection" was the key term in the clause: the EPC is a requirement that government provide protection from violence and a remedy for violations of rights. Representative Mercur: "[T]he great object to be accomplished, the great end to be reached, is 'protection.'" Especially in light of the allegiance-for-protection contractual tradition, I'd read the EPC as a requirement that the state protect (i.e., protect from violence, and supply remedies to) everyone bound to obey its decrees. Howard's speech isn't so clear that the EPC is a generic antidiscrimination provision. He explicitly distinguishes the rights of persons and citizens, but when he discusses the anti-caste principle, he stresses the rights of citizens. I'm working on a big long paper on this right now, but Maltz, Avins, Harrison, and TenBroeck say similar things. See here at 604.
Jack,
I think this discussion would be even better if you could provide some examples of settled cases that were not decided on originalist grounds as you define that term. I'm having trouble figuring out what your approach excludes, if anything. Thanks. Gerard N. Magliocca
Assuming the Prof. Balkin defines "legitimacy" in a legal sense, I do not understand how mere "attachment" to the Constitution provides a sufficient legal basis for demanding compliance with the Constitution. "Attachment" sounds a little abstract to me. I know of no legal principle recognizing attachment as reason for complying with a legal instrument. (Of course, evidence of express, implied, or deduced consent to a rule does form the authoritative basis of different sources of international law, but Prof. Balkin rejects consent.)
May I suggest that what legally binds the American people (and aliens under U.S. jurisdiction) to the U.S. Constitions is the equitable and legal principle prohibiting unjust enrichment. Americans (and aliens) as a matter of law and equity must obey the Constitution because they have acquired benefits from other Americans who have complied with the Constitution. The law of nations -- which pre-dates the Constitution -- recognizes the unjust enrichment prohibition principle. Indeed, if the Constitution is a treaty, then the unjust enrichment prohibition principle (as part of the voluntary law of nations) provides the sufficient and relevant legal basis for continuity of constitutional obligations that is otherwise absent in the case of express consent by today's Americans who had no choice in deciding whether to ratify the Constitution/treaty in 1788. Francisco Forrest Martin
The thing that recommends Prof. Balkin's text and principles originalism vis-a-vis the new originalists is that it takes seriously changes in American society/culture/mores; in other words, it is conversant w/ what we know from political science and other empirical disciplines. The new originalists do not; therefore it is hard to see their approach as anything more than a mildly interesting philosophical and/or linguistic exercise.
That said, I would also be interested to see, per Prof Magliocca, what est precedent would fall under the text and principles approach.
The debates leading to the 1871 Civil Rights Act make very clear that "protection" was the key term in the clause: the EPC is a requirement that government provide protection from violence and a remedy for violations of rights. Representative Mercur: "[T]he great object to be accomplished, the great end to be reached, is 'protection.'" Especially in light of the allegiance-for-protection contractual tradition, I'd read the EPC as a requirement that the state protect (i.e., protect from violence, and supply remedies to) everyone bound to obey its decrees.
Don't The Civil Rights Cases effectively negate this interpretation? After all, Harlan dissented expressly because he interpreted the EPC to require state protection of such rights as the use of accomodations on the public highways, public inns, places of public amusement, etc. 3 S. Ct. 18, 59-60.
Mark:
Here's the answer to your question (straight from the post): My arguments don’t always track existing doctrine, but in implementing these principles in concrete settings I am trying to do what existing doctrine does. The key point, once again, is that doctrine isn’t the same thing as constitutional meaning. It implements meaning.
Con law is not my field, and this may be a lame joke/reference anyway. But the phrase "new originalists" reminds me of the line from "This is Spinal Tap" in which one of the band members explains that the band used to be called "The Originals," but then they discovered another band already had that name, so they changed it to "The New Originals."
Mark: "Don't The Civil Rights Cases effectively negate this interpretation?"
I don't think they do on their own, though the duty-to-protect view of equal protection was on its way out as soon as Slaughterhouse got rid of any significance for the privileges-or-immunities clause, and the EPC was expanded into a generic antidiscrimination clause to fill the gap. Yick Wo--"the equal protection of the laws is a pledge of the protection of equal laws"--was the key move. The key point for the Civil Rights Cases was that they allowed federal intervention even if the states had met their constitutional duties perfectly. That's consistent with saying that states have affirmative constitutional duties to supply things like protection. The Civil Rights Cases allow that the Civil Rights Act of 1866 is constitutional--see 109 U.S. at 16--even though that Act imposes an affirmative obligation on states to supply to all citizens "full and equal benefit of all laws and proceedings for the security of persons and property" to the extent it is supplied to white citizens. Harlan's dissent was based more on the citizenship declaration and the 13A than the equal protection clause. He wanted the states to enforce common-carrier rights, but didn't set out a purely duty-to-protect EPC in any sense that the majority rejected.
Gerard, here are two examples of where my model probably produces different results than current doctrine, even though it can accommodate much of current doctrine. The first is that I think the most of the Eleventh Amendment cases following Hans v. Louisiana are probably wrongly decided. I also think that the Second Amendment protects an individual right and that it applies to the states. (In addition, I think that the Civil Rights Cases and Slaughter-House Cases were incorrectly decided, but existing doctrine has largely worked around them.)
My arguments don’t always track existing doctrine, but in implementing these principles in concrete settings I am trying to do what existing doctrine does. The key point, once again, is that doctrine isn’t the same thing as constitutional meaning. It implements meaning.
I think that's right for Prof. Balkin. I was wondering about Chris's claim. Speaking of which... The key point for the Civil Rights Cases was that they allowed federal intervention even if the states had met their constitutional duties perfectly. That's consistent with saying that states have affirmative constitutional duties to supply things like protection. Fair enough, up to a point. The problem is, The Civil Rights Cases substantially narrowed the substantive rights to which such protection was owed under the EPC. The modern court has circumvented this problem by, e.g., relying on the Commerce Clause (Heart of Atlanta). It's not the EPC doing the work, so in that sense I'm not sure your proposed interpretation is consistent with existing case authority. That's not necessarily a bad thing for you. I understand you're proposing a method of interpretation, not an explanation of existing precedent. What it does do is suggest that the "right to protection" may not be as clear as you suggest (and as I wish it were).
Mark: "I'm not sure your proposed interpretation is consistent with existing case authority."
Have no doubt--it's not consistent! See, e.g., Yick Wo. "[T]he 'right to protection' may not be as clear as you suggest (and as I wish it were)." I don't see what the consistency of a duty-to-protect reading with subsequent judicial interpretation has to do with how clear the duty to protect is. My point is that the text, in its original context, expresses a duty to protect, not a generic right against discrimination. True, lots of other interpreters have disagreed. But you have to sift through the enormous number of uses of the term "protection of the laws" as a remedial/enforcement right, and the 1871 debates, and the material on the allegiance-for-protection contractual tradition, to see how clear the duty-to-protect reading is.
"May I suggest that what legally binds the American people (and aliens under U.S. jurisdiction) to the U.S. Constitions is the equitable and legal principle prohibiting unjust enrichment."
And I'd like to suggest that what binds officers of the government to the US Constitution is the fact that they swore oaths to uphold it in order to become such officers. Whatever views may be available to the common citizen regarding the binding nature of the Constitution, everybody in the Legislative, Executive, and Judicial branches has already pre-committed to regarding it as binding and legitimate. It's become distressingly common to treat that oath as an empty formality, if it's even treated at all, but that reflects more on the sort of people comprising our political class today, than it does on the true significance of that oath.
"And I'd like to suggest that what binds officers of the government to the US Constitution is the fact that they swore oaths to uphold it in order to become such officers."
Amen!
I don't see what the consistency of a duty-to-protect reading with subsequent judicial interpretation has to do with how clear the duty to protect is. My point is that the text, in its original context, expresses a duty to protect, not a generic right against discrimination. True, lots of other interpreters have disagreed. But you have to sift through the enormous number of uses of the term "protection of the laws" as a remedial/enforcement right, and the 1871 debates, and the material on the allegiance-for-protection contractual tradition, to see how clear the duty-to-protect reading is.
An originalist (I'm not one) would respond that a decision in 1881 better reflects the actual original intent than our reading today. I'm just sayin'.... More substantively, though, I don't see how the "duty to protect" provides the necessary protection unless it's combined with certain substantive rights. That is, we'd also have to agree that the duty to protect extends to such things as, e.g., public accomodations. But that's precisely what the Civil Rights Cases denied and what subsequent courts have had to use other clauses (other than the EPC) to supply.
OK, I'm with you on the Civil Rights Cases and Slaughterhouse. (Let's leave the Second Amendment aside for now.) But why couldn't one say that the modern Eleventh Amendment cases follow your approach by going beyond the narrow original expected application (relating to diversity suits) to get at the broader principle underlying the provision (state sovereignty)? Of course, you might say that this is not the real principle behind the Eleventh Amendment, but would the contrary view be unreasonable?
I also wonder how Blaisdell fits into your story.
"An originalist (I'm not one) would respond that a decision in 1881 better reflects the actual original intent than our reading today. I'm just sayin'...."
Originalists are not, of course, committed to the claim that judicial bad faith started with the "Switch in time that saved Nine". All things being equal an older ruling is probably closer to original intent, but that's a highly rebutable presumption.
Mark: "An originalist (I'm not one) would respond that a decision in 1881 better reflects the actual original intent than our reading today. I'm just sayin'...."
I'm not sure what decision from 1881 you're talking about, but I get the idea. Yes, as Brett says, other things being equal, those closer to the enactment are better at assessing the sense expressed by constitutional language. It's defeasible, of course. Moreover, the no-improper-classification view of the EPC adopted in Yick Wo and some other relatively early cases (and which Balkin advocates above) is the dominant reading today! I want to go back to the view that prevailed in 1871, and which makes sense of the pre-14A usage of "protection of the laws" and the pre-14A allegiance-for-protection contractual tradition. Yick Wo & the other early cases don't consider those. "I don't see how the 'duty to protect' provides the necessary protection unless it's combined with certain substantive rights." I'm not sure what you mean by "necessary." Protection against violent assault is the core right, so a duty to protect correlates with a substantive right to life and bodily integrity. The "protection of the laws" is also the right to a remedy--it's like an open-courts provision. "[W]e'd also have to agree that the duty to protect extends to such things as, e.g., public accomodations." Not sure what you're getting at here. If we think the Civil Rights Cases were wrongly decided, and if we think, contrary to Harlan's dissent, that we can rely only on the Equal Protection Clause to sustain the 1875 Civil Rights Act, then we'd need to do that. But I think the privileges-or-immunities clause is the chief antidiscrimination provision in the 14A. Gerard: "[W]hy couldn't one say that the modern Eleventh Amendment cases follow your approach by going beyond the narrow original expected application (relating to diversity suits) to get at the broader principle underlying the provision (state sovereignty)?" I'm not sure what I think of the 11A cases--I think they're defensible, if at all, not strictly as interpretations of the 11A itself, but as applications of a pre-11A structural principle--but here's the answer I want Balkin to give: it's the text of the 11A, not just the original expected application, that talks about citizens from other states. Principles motivating a provision, but not expressed in the text, can be useful guides, but aren't dispositive--just like motivating original expected applications not expressed in the text.
In a general sense, given that the people writing the Constitution and it's amendments were attempting to communicate their intent to other people, who were trying to understand that intent, we should expect that original intent, original understanding, and text, will all converge on pretty much the same core meaning.
Were it otherwise, written communication would be an exercise in futility, after all. This implies that these distinctions, for all their theoretical importance, will in most instances have little practical consequence.
But I think the privileges-or-immunities clause is the chief antidiscrimination provision in the 14A.
Ah, I think I now understand your point better. You're saying that (a) the P&I clause tells us the substantive rights which the Constitution protects (e.g., freedom from assault, freedom to use public accomodations, etc.), while (b) the EPC commands that such rights be protected equally for all. If I understood you here, then it makes perfect sense. I'm not sure what decision from 1881 you're talking about That was a typo. The Civil Rights Cases were decided in 1883. In a general sense, given that the people writing the Constitution and it's amendments were attempting to communicate their intent to other people, who were trying to understand that intent, we should expect that original intent, original understanding, and text, will all converge on pretty much the same core meaning. I think this overlooks the salient fact of political compromise. Oftentimes statutes and Constitutions have a particular wording precisely because people cannot agree and thus use words which each interprets his own way.
Mark: "You're saying that (a) the P&I clause tells us the substantive rights which the Constitution protects (e.g., freedom from assault, freedom to use public accomodations, etc.), while (b) the EPC commands that such rights be protected equally for all."
That's not quite right. The P-or-I clause guarantees the rights of citizens; I think it both (a) prevents second-class citizenship--that is, ensures that one group of people does not get an abridged version of the rights that generally are given to all other citizens--and (b) secures traditional rights--that is, prevents government from abridging the rights that generally have been given to citizens. The EPC, though--as Howard stressed in his speech of May 23, 1866--guarantees the rights of all persons, not just citizens. I think the EPC both (a) guarantees a substantive right to be protected against violent assault and theft, and (b) guarantees the right to a remedy when rights are violated. So the substantive right of an alien to be protected from violence is only an EPC right, not a P-or-I one. Hope that's clearer.
Chris, the problem I have with your formulation was raised in your first post, specifically this passage:
"Especially in light of the allegiance-for-protection contractual tradition, I'd read the EPC as a requirement that the state protect (i.e., protect from violence, and supply remedies to) everyone bound to obey its decrees. Howard's speech isn't so clear that the EPC is a generic antidiscrimination provision. He explicitly distinguishes the rights of persons and citizens, but when he discusses the anti-caste principle, he stresses the rights of citizens." What I don't see in this statement is any sense of what substantive rights the EPC protects (nor how we know, on originalist grounds, what those specific rights are). I thought maybe your reference to the P&I clause solved the problem, but now I'm confused when you say "I think the EPC both (a) guarantees a substantive right to be protected against violent assault and theft...." That last quote seems inconsistent with the first, which stressed the remedy rather than the substance. Nor do I see how it is that the EPC, interpreted by an originalist, defines which substantive rights are protected.
Mark: "That last quote seems inconsistent with the first, which stressed the remedy rather than the substance."
Sorry I wasn't clear. I meant "protect from violence, and supply remedies" in the original passage to express the same two ideas I explain in the second one: "(a) ... a substantive right to be protected against violent assault and theft, and (b) ... the right to a remedy when rights are violated." "What I don't see in this statement is any sense of what substantive rights the EPC protects (nor how we know, on originalist grounds, what those specific rights are)." The right to be protected from physical violence--isn't that a pretty specific explanation? It's the right to have the police try to stop people from attacking me. The right to a remedy is perhaps more obscure, but it's got a long history from Marbury on down: "The very essence of civil liberty certainly consists in the right of every individual to claim the protection of the laws, whenever he receives an injury. One of the first duties of government is to afford that protection." The main way I find out what specific rights "protection of the laws" covers is to go back to the treatises from the 1860s and 1870s and see what they referred to using the phrase. There's a huge amount of material. If you've got a Making of Modern Law subscription, just do a search on "protection of the law" or "protection of the laws" before 1870 and you'll see what I mean--the pre-1866 Westlaw Allcases database will do too, but I've only slogged through the treatises. The second way I do it is to see what Congress referred to in 1871; I find their textual explanations for their interpretations of the EPC (e.g., here, Mercur's statement quoted above) quite compelling. There's over a thousand pages of good material. But as I say, I'm still working on my draft.
The right to be protected from physical violence--isn't that a pretty specific explanation?
Yes, but my question was why this one and not some other one. I think, though, that you answered that in your last paragraph. All which goes to show the strengths and weaknesses of posting comments seriatim. I suspect that this issue could have been resolved in a minute or so of a face-to-face conversation, instead of taking a couple of days and hundreds of words. OTOH, without the internet, we'd never have had the conversation at all...
In case anyone's still listening, my papers on the original sense of the Equal Protection Clause are now here and here.
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