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Tuesday, October 02, 2007
Gaming the First Amendment: De-Termin(ator)ing the Constitutionality of State Laws Prohibiting the Sale of Violent Video Games to Minors
Michael Stokes Paulsen
May states ban the sale of violent video games to minors? This is the Minnesota high school "classic debate" topic for early fall -- which is how I happened upon it -- and it looks like many of the arguments will involve the constitutionality of such bans. I get to be a "judge"this Saturday (a position that, fortunately, requires neither presidential appointment nor senate confirmation). Curious, I browsed the cases. Curiously, the lower court decisions so far all go in the same direction: the bans are unconstitutional under the Free Speech Clause of the First Amendment. But the opinions are all rather unsatisfying, tending mostly to follow, more reflexively than reflectively, the first decision out of the box, an unpersuasive 2001 Posner decision from the Seventh Circuit that rests on premises that the U.S. Supreme Court might well reject today.
Comments:
Abstracting away from the California statute, the reason these laws fail generally is for the simple reason that the term "violent" is unconstitutionally vague.
Some legislators, thinking themselves smarter than they actually are, have tried circumventing this question by copying wholesale the Miller obscenity test (i.e., replacing "obscene" with "violent"). The problem with that, meanwhile, is the pesky fact that even the most "violent" video game has at least some artistic or otherwise redemptive value, so the Miller-esque test must always be satisfied (i.e., the ban is facially invalid). And the students can cite me as much as they want! ;-)
Not sure why you find Kendrick "unpersuasive" . . . isn't the burden on you to grapple with the rather obvious distinguishing characteristic between Ginsberg and Kendrick (i.e., that Ginsberg dealt w/ sexually explicit materials while Kendrick dealt w/ violent video games) ????
Simply stating that they both dealt with "children's access to potentially harmful materials" glosses over what one would think would an important difference.
The Supreme Court has held, even when applying less than strict scrutiny, that, “[w]hen the Government defends a regulation on speech as a means to redress past harms or prevent anticipated harms, it must do more than simply ‘posit the existence of the disease sought to be cured.’ It must
demonstrate that the recited harms are real, not merely conjectural, and that the regulation will in fact alleviate these harms in a direct and material way.” Turner Broadcasting System v. FCC, 512 U.S. 622, 664 (1994) (incidental restriction on speech). The Court has applied the same principle with respect to restrictions on two other forms of speech to which it does not accord full First Amendment protection: commercial speech (Edenfield v. Fane, 507 U.S. 761, 770-771 (1993) (“a governmental body seeking to sustain a restriction on commercial speech must demonstrate that the harms it recites are real”)), and campaign contributions (Missouri Government PAC, 528 U.S. 377, 392 (2000) (“We have never accepted mere conjecture as adequate to carry a First Amendment burden . . .”)). There is one exception to the above principle, though the Supreme Court has never acknowledged it, and that is where the government denies minors access to sexually explicit material. In Ginsberg, as you note, the Court applied a rational basis test. In a case involving a federal statute that restricted “signal bleed” of sexually explicit programming on cable television, a federal district court wrote, “We recognize that the Supreme Court’s jurisprudence does not require empirical evidence. Only some minimal amount of evidence is required when sexually explicit programming and children are involved.” Playboy Entertainment Group, Inc. v. U.S., 30 F. Supp. 2d 702, 716 (D. Del. 1998), aff’d, 529 U.S. 803 (2000). In a case upholding a statute that, to shield minors from “indecent” material, limited the hours that such material may be broadcast on radio and television, a federal court of appeals wrote, “Congress does not need the testimony of psychiatrists and social scientists in order to take note of the coarsening of impressionable minds that can result from a persistent exposure to sexually explicit material. . . .” Action for Children’s Television v. FCC, 58 F.3d 654, 662 (D.C. Cir. 1995) (en banc), cert. denied, 516 U.S. 1043 (1996). A dissenting opinion complained, “[t]here is not one iota of evidence in the record . . . to support the claim that exposure to indecency is harmful – indeed, the nature of the alleged ‘harm’ is never explained.” Id. at 671 (Edwards, C.J., dissenting). In all the cases in which the Court has struck down restrictions on “indecent” or “harmful to minors” material, it has done so on the basis of the government’s not having used the least restrictive means available, after having assumed that the government had a compelling interest. The question, then, is whether the Court should, with respect to violence, use the approach that it has used for sexually explicit material, or whether it should apply the otherwise applicable law and demand that, before the government may censor speech, it must show that it is harmful.
Another problem with allowing the government to ban minors' access to violent video games is that so much other cultural material is violent. If the government could ban minors' access to violent video games, it would be difficult to come up with a principled reason to prevent it from banning Saturday morning cartoons, westerns, and science fiction movies, not to mention the teaching of Shakespeare to high school kids. Judge Posner goes into this in his opinion.
I'm not a big fan of the 1960s ruling cited though Justice Brennan had his bad moments in that area.
See also, Ginzburg in which he invented some "pandering" test (leading Stewart and Harlan to dissent with Black and Douglas). In fact, he didn't join the majority in Stanley v. GA, the obscenity in the home case. I do understand a difference here ... it might be compared to statutory rules for having sex. Besides, violence and sex is arbitrarily treated differently in this culture, so it makes sense it is in this context. The fact it is arbtrary to some respect -- we are still somewhat Puritian vis-a-vis some European countries -- underlines some lines made in law are arbitrary. Still, as to Henry's comment ... Shakespeare has sexual content, as does daytime talk shows and soaps, plus t.v. on basic channels before 10 p.m. Given this and various changes since 1968, that ruling probably should be taken with a bit of salt.
A distinction has to be drawn between (1) actual harm to minors and (2) the understandable desire of parents to deny their kids access to stuff that they are offended by.
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(1) is a perfectly valid state interest, but the problem is, everyone always thinks that the culture is harmful to kids, and it never really is. Frank Sinatra was going to harm kids. Elvis was going to harm kids. The Beatles were going to harm kids. Psychadelic music was going to harm kids. Television was going to harm kids. Heavy Metal was going to harm kids. Backwards satanic messages were going to harm kids. Pinball was going to harm kids. Video arcades were going to harm kids. Rap was going to harm kids. The Internet was going to harm kids. And now violent video games. Somehow, minors are a bit more resiliant than we give them credit for. Now, one can argue that (2) is a compelling interest too. But I think that's a terrible idea, because where we end up is dumbing down all speech to a level where it is acceptable to the most prudish of parents.
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